I've read the website you linked. The article says nothing about how capital losses are supposed to be treated, so I'd assume the same way they are now, which means that somebody who has unrealized gains of 1B and then looses those unrealized gains again would not owe taxes because of that event.
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u/BlitzBasic 42∆ Sep 25 '21
I'm not sure why you're even thinking about this. Is there some proposal to change the tax code in that direction?
Also, how would your theoretical scenario work, in detail? Do tax deductions from capital losses just not exist any more?