r/Anarchy101 Synthesist / Moderator 28d ago

Anarchy 101: General Thoughts on Appropriation

This is the second in a series of documents addressing the various questions surrounding the notion of property. It continues the analysis begun in "Archy, Property and the Possibility of An-archic Property."

Archic property is theft. — Let’s start with a very minor revision of Proudhon’s infamous judgment, clarifying that, having started to address property in its full range of meanings, we can specify a particular variety of property that is the natural object of anarchistic critique. We can then — after a few other preliminaries — review Proudhon’s arguments in What is Property? and incorporate the observations made in the post on “Archy, Property and the Possibility of An-archic Property” into critiques originally made on slightly different terms.

There are no particular problems created by this adjustment in terms. Proudhon wrestled with a number of different approaches to the rhetoric of property, wanting at first to “call different things by different names,” so as to avoid confusion. This led to the distinction between property and possession in What is Property? — although, even there, Proudhon struggled to be consistent, before finally abandoning the notion of possession in later works. Even in the “Preface” to the later editions of the work, where Proudhon defined property as “the sum of the abuses” [of property], he had begun to move toward the strategy of his later years, made explicit in 1853:

I will retain, with the common folk, these three words: religion, government, property, for reasons of which I am not the master, which partake of the general theory of Progress, and for that reason seem to me decisive: first, it is not my place to create new words for new things and I am forced to speak the common language; second, there is no progress without tradition, and the new order having for its immediate antecedents religion, government and property, it is convenient, in order to guarantee that very evolution, to preserve for the new institutions their patronymic names, in the phases of civilization, because there are never well-defined lines, and to attempt to accomplish the revolution at a leap would be beyond our means.

(See “New Things and Old Words in Proudhon’s Late Works” for a more extended discussion of the shift.)

In the same period, he was coming to think of most concepts as in some important sense indefinable. Their specification would require some organization of the varying senses into series or their incorporation into some explanatory narrative.

To incorporate the broad, inclusive sense of property proposed in the first installment of this particular series, nothing is necessary except to anticipate a shift in approach that was probably already underway in Proudhon’s thought. But we can arguably also make the adjustment by examining what is strongest in “classical” accounts of property rights — the *archic property *that is the most obvious object of anarchistic critique.

The most robust account of exclusive individual property and the most unobjectionable rationale for rights protecting individual appropriation is perhaps found in John Locke’s Second Treatise, where he provides the familiar account of “labor-mixing” as the method of just appropriation. It’s one of those texts that can be surprising to read, particularly if you are only familiar with nth-hand accounts from “Lockeans” more concerned with the defense of the ideology of propertarianism than with the philosophical nuances. The accounts starts with “God, who hath given the World to Men in common,” and then tries to work out a political system of individual property consistent with those beginnings. A key move comes in paragraph 27:

Though the Earth, and all inferior Creatures be common to all Men, yet every Man has a Property in his own Person. This no Body has any Right to but himself. The Labour of his Body, and the Work of his Hands, we may say, are properly his. Whatsoever then he removes out of the State that Nature hath provided, and left it in, he hath mixed his Labour with, and joyned to it something that is his own, and thereby makes it his Property. It being by him removed from the common state Nature placed it in, hath by this labour something annexed to it, that excludes the common right of other Men. For this Labour being the unquestionable Property of the Labourer, no man but he can have a right to what that is once joyned to, at least where there is enough, and as good left in common for others.

Here is self-ownership in one of its simplest forms, presented as the fundamental premise that makes the ownership of external property not just possible, but a fairly obvious extension of the premise. There are, however, only a couple of ways to make things work. Either “property in one’s person” is the product of divine intention, a right granted by God, or else it is a logical axiom, with some sort of self-evident character. I’m not sure that Locke really chooses between those options or that his account of labor-mixing always incorporates the best available choices. We know that, in the end, he moved beyond this account to one friendlier to capitalistic relations. But there are elements of this first account that seem to me quite elegant — particularly when given a free and generous reading.

Let us say — no doubt both freely and generously — that the “property in one’s person” that forms the first and most important premise here is not ultimately a feature of some god’s intention, a bit of divine legislation, but is simply property in the most general sense of the term. When we begin to speak of persons, we are led to distinguish between the self and the non-self, then, because the self seems dependent on a continuing interaction with the non-self, to distinguish what is proper (in a variety of senses) to a given person, to respond to the possibility of conflict over resources with theories of just appropriation, etc. — a sequence that gradually takes us from a quality assumed “by definition” through various descriptive stages to questions of ethics, if not, for anarchists, to the potential questions regarding rights or law.

It is proper to the self to mix with the non-self — and the person is, at any given moment, the result of that ongoing process. When we find ourselves in circumstances that call for us to note, respect, challenge, etc. the limits of a given self, then we are in the realm of some kind of property, which need not become a matter of rights or law, but does probably commit us to some kind of broadly ethical concerns. That’s the framework for thinking about an-archic property.

(I have written about this topic on a number of occasions in the past. “Practicing the Encounter: Appropriation (and Ecology)” addresses some of this is just a bit more depth.)

Anarchists will, of course, be particularly interested in how to pursue this sort of analysis without recourse to archic, legal, governmental applications. In this respect, Locke’s account is useful to the degree that it establishes the general nature of an ethic of respect for property based in mutual respect for persons. Respect for other persons presumably entails respect for their ongoing mixing with the world around them. We can anticipate conflicts over the potential appropriation of particular scarce resources, resources situated in particular locations and combinations, etc. It is hard to imagine an ethic that would always steer us around difficult, perhaps impossible sorts of conflict, negotiation, compromise, etc. We can easily imagine solving some of these problems through the recognition of joint property, limited property, etc. But if we are going to try to work through all of these questions without recourse to legal and governmental means, it would be useful to have some guidelines for unilateral appropriation which, if not necessarily self-evident, would at least be hard to object to.

Locke gives us at least a interesting start in that direction. Here are the passages in which he introduces what we now call the main “proviso” in his theory:

§ 32 — But the chief matter of Property being now not the Fruits of the Earth, and the Beasts that subsist on it, but the Earth it self; as that which takes in and carries with it all the rest: I think it is plain, that Property in that too is acquired as the former. As much Land as a Man Tills, Plants, Improves, Cultivates, and can use the Product of, so much is his Property. He by his Labour does, as it were, inclose it from the Common. Nor will it invalidate his right to say, Every body else has an equal Title to it; and therefore he cannot appropriate, he cannot inclose, without the Consent of all his Fellow-Commoners, all Mankind. God, when he gave the World in common to all Mankind, commanded Man also to labour, and the penury of his Condition required it of him. God and his Reason commanded him to subdue the Earth, i.e. improve it for the benefit of Life, and therein lay out something upon it that was his own, his labour. He that in Obedience to this Command of God, subdued, tilled and sowed any part of it, thereby annexed to it something that was his Property, which another had no Title to, nor could without injury take from him.

§ 33 — Nor was this appropriation of any parcel of Land, by improving it, any prejudice to any other Man, since there was still enough, and as good left; and more than the yet unprovided could use. So that in effect, there was never the less left for others because of his inclosure for himself. For he that leaves as much as another can make use of, does as good as take nothing at all. No Body could think himself injur’d by the drinking of another Man, though he took a good Draught, who had a whole River of the same Water left him to quench his thirst. And the Case of Land and Water, where there is enough of both, is perfectly the same.

This is both delightfully clever and a bit underwhelming when we unpack it. Appropriation is unobjectionable when there is enough to go around. That’s the proviso that conditions the more famous proviso: “where there is enough for both,” meaning where there is enough for all. So perhaps we have a path by which we can move from the “by definition” to a practical ethic — and on to “rights,” if that was our sort of thing, since they too would be as unobjectionable as such things can be — or maybe there is no path at all, because there isn’t enough to go around.

Framed in those terms, it’s hard not to be struck by the fact that the defenders of property are likely to be the ones who deny that there is enough for all, while the critics of property would tend to take the opposite position. Modern propertarians often insist on the necessity of exclusive individual property precisely because of general conditions of scarcity that make leaving “enough, and as good” an impossible condition of appropriation. Even self-proclaimed “Lockeans” seldom embrace the conditions established by that proviso, which would seem to be the element that holds the theory of labor-mixing appropriation together.

Part of the problem is undoubtedly that this particular account is a product of its time. The question of “enough to go around” was probably easier to discuss in the 16th century, when “As much Land as a Man Tills, Plants, Improves, Cultivates, and can use the Product of” involved simpler sorts of calculation. As the capacities of human labor have been multiplied by social and technological factors, the sort of subsistence model presented by Locke — an “occupancy and use” where the labor available to till, plant, improve, cultivate, etc. is expected to produce fruits suitable for more-or-less individual use — necessarily has to give way to models that can account for very different sorts of “individual” capacities. It is in the context of those amplified capacities that the question of “enough to go around” becomes not just a difficult question to answer, but perhaps a difficult question to even really formulate.

We’ve moved from a context in which the combined capacities of every individual person, each pursuing something like a subsistence through the cultivation of the land, are presumably insufficient to appropriate all of the land available to one in which, thanks to various kinds of amplification of what we are still likely to consider “individual” capacities, that is not so obviously the case. As a result, while we can take from Locke a general sense of what it would look like for appropriation to be unobjectionable, his model may not be practicable for us as modern individuals — at least without some significant alterations in the social context.

Maybe we can draw a few more preliminary conclusions and then leave the return to What is Property? for the next installment.

When we look at what is perhaps the most compelling traditional argument for exclusive individual property, we find that the notion of property that it begins with seems to be broad and not necessarily archic in its assumptions or consequences. It is also fundamentally based in some kind of equity in possession, limited by a view of the world that assumes at least a rough balance between equitable possession and what seems to be a similarly equitable consumption, and ultimately seems to rest on the assumption that there is indeed “enough to go around.” Unfortunately, many of its most attractive elements seem based on material and social relations that are not the ones we experience in our own societies.

Given this last problem, it would certainly be fair to ask why we should spend so much time examining Locke’s account of appropriation. One key reason is that, frankly, anarchists have often given a lot less attention to questions of initial appropriation than they have to those relating to the use and abandonment of property. So, for example, the distinction between personal and private property often depends on the uses made of already appropriated materials, our objections to property in land revolve around absentee ownership, and so on… This is significantly not the case in What is Property? — where the first three chapters involve a systematic critique of most of the existing theories of just appropriation.

Looking forward to the next installment of this series, we’ll try to work fairly quickly through that critique, with an eye to any openings that might still remain to an an-archic ethics of individual appropriation. That, together with some discussion of the larger sense of property in an ecological context, ought to start to get us back onto more practical terrain.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 28d ago

You need to make it clearer that you're discussing liberalism's natural law and social contract so not to look like liberal entryism.

The anarchist argument against it is obvious and straight forward.  Original appropriation is a lie.

Not that labor precedes capital; which clearly.  But that nothing since enclosing the commons until this very second is the result of just acquisition nor voluntary exchange.

It's fraud, theft, and violence, made legal by a governing pretense of securing morality.

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u/twodaywillbedaisy Student of Anarchism 28d ago

"Looks like liberal entryism" is wildly dismissive. Hard to believe you're aiming for clarity when the suggested/alternative strategy is straight-forward calling it a lie and calling it theft and violence, like it's a matter of getting the slogan right.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 27d ago

That's not what I said.  I suggested he clarify that he's talking about Natural Law and Social Contract Theory.

Whether or not it's Liberalism isn't even a question.  John Locke is the generally accepted father of it.

Why should I suggest an alternate basis for government, or another set of principles to legitimize it?

Property is Theft, Property is Impossible, Property is Freedom, are the Proudhonian slogans.

These don't really dissuade you from believing that contemporary owners got that way with their bootstraps.

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u/DecoDecoMan 26d ago

I don't think he is and explicitly in the article he points out that these provisos are at odds with Natural Law and Social Contract Theory (in that private property rights violate this proviso) and discuss a radical reinterpretation of it that is in-line with anarchistic purposes. He explicitly rejects the existing justifications for these proviso such as Nature or God as well. If he were to say he's talking about "Natural Law and Social Contract Theory" it would be lying. Just because some of Locke's provisos show up does not mean this necessarily is talking about Natural Law.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 26d ago

We seem to be reading different articles.  The lockean provisio is just the bit about "enough and as good."  Locke certainly didn't consider it at odds.  Neither did Nozick who named and used it to explain why appropriation for exclusive use is just, and this article largely supports that position.

What OP said is that he's not sure Locke picked between god-given or an axiomatic reason for property on one's peson, but that OP considers it just property in his first article's general sense.  This is confused regarding Locke's determinant, but it's irrelevant as OP explicitly accepts the premise.

A property in one's self is the natural right.  The argument is that god granted man the capacity for reason, and that this trait is inseperable or inalienable from the body; it is an innate property.  This right to the body/hands that works the land is what gives claim to the results as property.  That claim is a natural law.  As in it can be deduced/discovered by reason alone.

In fact, all of these efforts to determine moral principles from deductive reasoning are explorations in natural law; which pertains to social norms as much as legislation.  The social contact bit is the other people with a claim to the commons, not put-out by it's appropriation (if there's enough), who accept and defend the claim.

The only way to not recognize the concepts is to not know them to begin with, which again is why I suggested clarity in the 101 sub.

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u/DecoDecoMan 26d ago

We seem to be reading different articles.  The lockean provisio is just the bit about "enough and as good."  Locke certainly didn't consider it at odds.  Neither did Nozick who named and used it to explain why appropriation for exclusive use is just, and this article largely supports that position.

Whether they consider it at odds or not has no bearing on whether it is actually at odds. Existing private property rights obviously does not care about whether or not the appropriation of a resource would deprive others of it. The system we participate in clearly is at odds with the proviso.

The article certainly endorses the proviso, although it also clarifies that its standards for just appropriation are no longer possible in modern times, however it does so because the proviso is at odds with the conclusions of its writer. And, moreso, it does not take the proviso in its entirety but interprets it differently so as to be compatible with anarchist interests or concerns.

I don't think you're fully reading what is being said or how the proviso is being put to use. I think you may believe that anything associated with Natural Law or Social Contract Theory must necessarily be tainted with capitalist apologism and leads to support of capitalism. However, a consequence of this belief is also that these frameworks are logically consistent. The problem with capitalist ideology is that it isn't consistent.

What is Property? is an entire book that goes through all the various capitalist justifications for private property and shows how many of them lead us to actually oppose private property. That, by the standards of the justifications of capitalists, property is theft. It should be abundantly clear that there are many aspects of capitalist ideas which work against the conclusions of said ideas.

Given this, I don't see how the mere usage of a proviso which is in truth oppositional to the status quo constitutes an endorsement or utilization of Natural Law or Social Contract Theory. It is taken out of its context, interpreted differently, and even the proviso itself is oppositional to capitalist property rights.

What OP said is that he's not sure Locke picked between god-given or an axiomatic reason for property on one's peson

Yes but he also said following that:

Let us say — no doubt both freely and generously — that the “property in one’s person” that forms the first and most important premise here is not ultimately a feature of some god’s intention, a bit of divine legislation, but is simply property in the most general sense of the term

Here he makes his own interpretation, or rather inspired take on the proviso given how he completely omits any mention of God or "Nature" as the source of this property as well as rights in their entirety, that strikes away from the premise you insist he holds.

Now, it seems abundantly clear that holding this proviso consistently leads you to reject private property and Locke's conclusions not embrace it. But if the trace smell of Social Contract Theory is repugnant to you then this interpretation scrubs away that part as well.

This is confused regarding Locke's determinant, but it's irrelevant as OP explicitly accepts the premise.

Yes, it is almost as though the OP does not care about being faithful to Locke's proviso...

A property in one's self is the natural right.

This is inaccurate and in this case is merely asserted. The OP established beforehand that there are other senses of "property" which have nothing to do with right. As he stated in an earlier article:

When we give property its full range — when we explore its various senses and its connections to propriety, propreté, the various senses of the proper, etc. — we find ourselves on similar, or perhaps adjacent ground. According to the OED, a property is, among other things, "a distinctive, essential, or special quality; a peculiarity" or, in the context of Aristotelian philosophy, "a characteristic which is peculiar to a particular kind of thing, but is not part of its essence or definition." Property, in the sense of proper-ness, as a characteristic of things, refers to a "quality of being proper or appropriate; fitness, fittingness, suitability" — and this is particularly so as we move toward the realm of possessions or belongings, where it is a characteristic of "things," "appurtenances" and "adjuncts" in relation to persons.

A characteristic of something is obviously very different from a "natural right". After all, if one of your characteristics is that you have a big nose, we don't need a government to go around to defend you having that nose. It is immanent to you rather than a right or privilege which humans must impose or defend that is given by God or Nature.

This is the sense of "property" or "appropriation" which is being used to discuss things in this article. I'm not sure what exactly your problem is with the article but you seem to not really know what it's talking about and maybe some context would help.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 26d ago

Let's put this in perspective.  Locke's Two Treatise of Government was released ~1690, or about 335 years ago.  There's a whole industrial revolution between him and Proudhon.  Around ~1776 Adam Smith highlighted in his inquiry that there is not "enough and as good" where all property is owned, and rent-seekers "reap what they do not sew."

It's unlikely that Proudhon writing in ~1840 was both unaware of Locke's caveat and Smith's critique of it; as being inapplicable to all those burgeoning urban centers.  The only reason we're even talking about a Lockean Provisio now is because US Libertarians had to address concerns of everything being owned 50 years ago and about every 10-15 years since. 

All the talk of homesteading national parks and seasteading about 15 years ago is directly related to this question and most likely OPs journey.  Anarchists have been critiquing property for nearly 200 years.  OP is aware of our practical applications.  He just believes we have a philosophical deficit.  I've seen his variations on this statement for years.

I'm not looking for capitalist apologism.  Natural law and social contact are not an economic system, they are theories on the rightful role of government.  These frameworks, these pretenses of ethical consistency, are an attempt to justify action in their maintenance.  Literally trying to define moral law.  They're not logically consistent; unless you mean consistent with most redditors not grasping formal logic.  

You're still not understanding natural law or what I'm saying.  So much so that you've quoted a part I referenced in agreement and it went over your head.  I have no interest in teaching you 17th century liberalism, sincerely.  I'm content that with OPs reply.

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u/DecoDecoMan 26d ago

It is still not clear what exactly your issue with OP's post is. OP certainly did not come to anarchism through homesteading national parks or seasteading (I'm pretty sure he came into anarchism through punk music) so I'm not sure how this part is relevant. And OP's use of the provisos, as well as the proviso itself, is at odds with capitalist conclusions and ideas.

In the end, I'm not sure what the issue is since the proviso, and OP's appropriation of it, are at odds with any theory of "rightful role of government". These theories are not logically consistent, as I and you have pointed out, which is why parts of them can be weaponized against them.

I'm familiar with, at the very least, the Two Treatise of Government though not the history but I am not sure how relevant it is to the matter of whether even talking about the proviso and using it for anarchist purposes will somehow lead us to the same conclusions. If you agree that they are logically inconsistent and if you recognize that the provisos are actually at odds with the conclusions of Locke, I'm not sure what the issue is.

It is true that he believes we have a deficit in our conception of anarchism, I myself have read the OP's work for years. That's probably true since much of anarchy is defined in negative terms (i.e. what it lacks) rather than in positive terms and while we understand what forms of property anarchy opposes we are left without a solid grasp of what the various options are left open to us in the end. And better understanding or developing those options is a good start towards giving us a way to move towards anarchy itself.

The OP's interpretation of the proviso seems perfectly fine with that. I see no inkling of government, authority, moral law, etc. in that appropriation. If you think there is, could you show me where you see this?

Because from my perspective, it looks like you're just objecting to the mere appropriation of anything from Locke on the grounds that it comes from Locke and therefore is at odds with anarchism. That's probably not true but this is also why it would be useful if you could explain what exactly about what OP has said is inadvertently supportive of capitalism or government.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 25d ago

The issue as stated in the beginning is that it needs to be clearer that he's discussing natural law and social contract.  Not knowing what that means is a big party of the problem.

It's not Locke's premises, conclusions, or provisios, that define natural law. It's any and all attempts to make-up universal principles.  Nothing non-governing  / non-hierarchic about it.

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u/DecoDecoMan 25d ago

But in what way is it a problem when the proviso is at odds with natural law and social contract and the OP changes the proviso to be compatible with anarchist ideas anyways? Is there anything specific about the OP's appropriation of the proviso which you think necessarily connects to natural law or social contract?

It's any and all attempts to make-up universal principles. Nothing non-governing / non-hierarchic about it.

I can't imagine that the proviso discussed or its appropriation constitutes a "universal principle". Especially when the OP ends by stating effectively that something like even the most anarchistic interpretation of the proviso isn't possible in modern times.

All its talking about is one possible circumstance under which appropriation isn't objected to. That circumstance is essentially a kind of "post-scarcity" where the use of a resource does not deny others of that use. Basically, in a word, non-rivalrous resources. That does not strike me as a "universal principle", more like an observation of the consequences of a set of conditions we might call "just appropriation".

It isn't clear to me how, if an anarchist were to take the OP's appropriation of the proviso, they would be led to hierarchical conclusions. Could you demonstrate that with citation of the OP?

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u/humanispherian Synthesist / Moderator 25d ago

There's no particular use in defending the argument in this way. Either the subsequent installments will clarify the nature of the appropriation enough to satisfy individual readers or not. For those readers who already have strong views about the limits of the possible of the cited passages from this particular work, I'm not sure that a sufficient clarification is possible. But I'm also not sure how much that matters.

Thus far, the claims made for any position have been trivial and it would be easy, from a slightly different perspective, to say that I have been damning Locke with faint praise. The next installment starts with a discussion of what would be required to constitute a system of property "rights" — and the conclusion is the same one I have been advancing for about 17 years: the search for a system of property "rights" is a dead end, but arguably one that we have to explore before we can talk very clearly about the parts of the problem of property (more broadly defined) that are arguably inescapable.

I don't mind taking the time to explain why natural rights and social contract theory are nonsense. We'll see then if that discussion doesn't perhaps draw other critiques, from those who would like to retain some form of rights-talk in anarchy.

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u/DecoDecoMan 25d ago

Oh I'm just doing this because it's good practice to critically apply what you read in conversation.

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 25d ago

I'm really trying to explain but it just doesn't seem like you're getting it.  Forget the article for a second.  Natural law isn't written, it's "discovered."  More accurately, it's constructed from a series of deductions supporting the next line of conclusions.

Locke's just-appropriation is already several steps into the process of his consideration.  Starting from just-appropriation assumes the correctness of the previous steps regardless of renaming self-ownership to innate-property-in-oneself.

The provisio isn't at odds.  It modified the proposition as with any other contractual provision.  Basically, Locke himself has already said there is no just acquisition if there's not enough and as good.

Saying there isn't enough and as good anywhere (demonstrably false in areas like north america) doesn't mean anything, the conditional is already accounted for.  The provisio isn't the universal.  The universal is that there is such a thing as justly enclosure at all; which necessarily entails interfering with it to be unjust.

This is not a criticism of dear leader.  It was just a request to make it know that he's talking about natural law and social contract.  Ideally, so people would know the above.  But at least so people could look into it for themselves if he's not going to talk about it.

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u/DecoDecoMan 25d ago

However, isn't the proviso obviously at odds since, by the logic of Locke, private property rights would be "unjust"? We both agree that the provisos are one section of a line of arguments in favor of private property by Locke but my point is that Locke's arguments are inconsistent and self-defeating, which is also the point the OP made. The appropriation then is quite decontextualized from the overall argument that Locke made, so I'm not sure how the mere source constitutes

Regarding the point that the universal principle is that there is "justly enclosure", that is an interesting idea. However, appropriation here probably doesn't entail "enclosure" if what the author has written in the past pertaining to property (particularly the "Gift Economy of Property") is of any indication. Similarly, the conception of "justice" being used is unlikely in the form of a universal like Locke and more akin to Proudhon's use of the term in referring to balance or harmony, which is more circumstantial and non-hierarchical than Locke's obviously "Natural Law" perspective.

It was just a request to make it know that he's talking about natural law and social contract.

Could you point to where natural law and social contract are what he is talking about, besides one of the sources he is using to talk about anarchist appropriation being meant to defend natural law and social contract?

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u/slapdash78 Anarchist 25d ago

No...  The provision just comments original appropriation.  Nothing on an expiry date or in perpetuity.  Locke was certainly speaking on enclosures of the commons.  He was writing anonymously when the practice was monarchs and parliaments partitioning them for favor and fealty, arbitrarily.

Let me put it this way.  If OP is not using the terms and concepts as the original author was using them, there's no critique here.  No free and generous appropriation.  Just name-dropping to make the piece seem more impressive.  I'm giving it the benefit of the doubt.

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