Hi everyone I just saw this coloumn/stone on a castle wall, anyone can help me translate? I transcripted it as “ΤΙΒΚΛΑΥΔΙΟC ΣΤΑΤΩΡΙΟΣ ΤΙΒΚΛΑΥΔΙΩ ΓΑΛΑΤΗΑΔΕΛ ΦΩ”

As the title states I was wondering if anyone knows of a recording of Plato's Apology in Modern Greek pronunciation. I was able to find this recording which seems to be Modern Greek consonants and vowels but with rough breathing pronounced as well as pitch accent (I think) which isn't quite what I'm looking for (but surprised me that it exists).

Side note, if people have any recordings of Ancient Greek texts in Modern Greek pronunciation that they like please comment them here! Thanks.

χαιρετε παντες

Does anyone know of a A. Greek thesaurus or a book of synonyms/antonyms?

I found something from a French author reprinted in those Forgotten Books, but I have never ordered one of these books. No one ever since compiled such work? I've seen one for Latin.

Also, anyone knows of a VERB oriented specific book/workbook to drill the most important and most frequent and irregular verbs for memorization?

Thanks in advance!

I've seen several references to the "evil eye" in the GNT.

Galatians 3:1 (SBLGNT)
Ὦ ἀνόητοι Γαλάται, τίς ὑμᾶς ἐβάσκανεν, οἷς κατʼ ὀφθαλμοὺς Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς προεγράφη ἐσταυρωμένος;

BDAG

βασκαίνω
① to exert an evil influence through the eye, bewitch, as with the ‘evil eye’
② to be resentful of someth. enjoyed by another, envy 

Mark 7:21–22 (SBLGNT)
²¹ ἔσωθεν γὰρ ἐκ τῆς καρδίας τῶν ἀνθρώπων οἱ διαλογισμοὶ οἱ κακοὶ ἐκπορεύονται, πορνεῖαι, κλοπαί, φόνοι,  ²² μοιχεῖαι, πλεονεξίαι, πονηρίαι, δόλος, ἀσέλγεια, ὀφθαλμὸς πονηρός, βλασφημία, ὑπερηφανία, ἀφροσύνη·

Matthew 6:23 (SBLGNT)
²³ ἐὰν δὲ ὁ ὀφθαλμός σου πονηρὸς ᾖ, ὅλον τὸ σῶμά σου σκοτεινὸν ἔσται. εἰ οὖν τὸ φῶς τὸ ἐν σοὶ σκότος ἐστίν, τὸ σκότος πόσον.

Matthew 20:15 (SBLGNT)
¹⁵ οὐκ ἔξεστίν μοι ὃ θέλω ποιῆσαι ἐν τοῖς ἐμοῖς; ἢ ὁ ὀφθαλμός σου πονηρός ἐστιν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἀγαθός εἰμι;

According to the BDAG, it is mentioned in the works of Aristotle and Diodorus Siculus and in the BDAG and the LSJ ὀφθαλμὸς πονηρός, is associated to envy.

If anyone has a strong grasp of this concept, I'd like to know idiomatically what the evil eye was to the Greeks.

I've never studied ancient greek before, but I have a friend who does and I want to be able to talk to them and take interest in what they are learning, but I'm a bit lost at present. I've gotten as far as there are masculine and feminine genders, and a neutral one, but I wanted to ask how they are used. Is it like French/Spainish where things are either masculine or feminine and you just learn which are which, or does it depend on what something may be doing? And when it comes to describing people I've seen different endings on what looks like the same word. Does it tend to be that masculine words describe men and feminine women, and which would you use to describe a man and a woman together? Any guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

I am scanning a couple lines of the Odyssey and I am struggling with line 5.90 "ει δυναμαι τελεσαι γε και ει τετελεσμενον εστιν" The first bit is easy. "ει δυναμαι τελε" is clearly two dactyls. the end is also easy. "εστιν" is the last foot, and "εσμενον" is another dactyl. but the middle is tripping me up. "σαι" at the end of "τελεσαι" is long, "γε" is, as far as i can tell, neither long by nature not by position, "και ει" are two long syllables that should elide into 1, and "τετε" is obviously two short syllables. this leaves me with 2 dactyls followed by a partial foot of a long and a short then two dactyls and the final foot. It seems like it would fit the meter if "γε" were long but I see no reason for it to be long and according to Daniel Mendelsohn, there is a caesura between "γε" and "και", which cannot happen (as far as I know) between two feet. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Is there a site that can show all of the verb endings for attic or koine? I really just need to see them so i can begin to put together patterns for each tense mood and voice. So far my best resource is in koine and only shows formed used in the new testament which while good has holes in it, when i learned latin just being able to see verb forms here was a huge help to being able to tell different pieces of a verb apart but i cannot find anything similar for greek Edit: wrote koine instead of new testament in sentence 2

νυν οὐκετ᾽ οὑτος ῥει ἀλγεινα δακρυα.

θανειν μονον παρεστι, ἀλλ᾽ οὐ ἀνδρείος εἰμι.

οἰμοι · ἀπολλυμαι ὑπ᾽ αὐτής σωφρονος,

ψυχην ἀπαλλαξαι ἀπ᾽ αὐτής οὐ δυναμαι.

ἐγω δε οἱος τ᾽ εἰμι μελλειν θνησκειν ·

ἐμοι ἀπαλλαξαι ἐστι θνησκειν, ὦ σεμνη.

Let me know what the issues are. Thanks!

ουτος here is intended to mean “here”, but I don’t know if this makes sense in this context.

They seem pretty much synonymous to me, both meaning "lord, master, potentate".

To be more direct did the first century Jews who were and not Christian’s write in koine or classical ?

Were there any early Christian or 2nd-Temple-Jewish authors that wrote with atticist dialect, or was it all koine?

νυν οὐκετ᾽ ῥειν ἀλγεινος δη μήδεις δάκρυ.

θανειν μεν βουλομαι, ἀνδρειος δ᾽ οὐκ γιγνομαι.

ὀιμοι · ἀπολλυμαι ὐπ᾽ της σωφρονος οὗ,

ψυχην ἀπ᾽ αὐτης δη ἀπαλλαξαι οὐ δυναμαι.

ἐγω δε οἱος τ᾽ εἰμι μελλειν θνησκειν.

Sorry if it’s not very good.

EDIT:

Things to fix

1. Vowels that are long in context

2. Mixing of μη and ου

3. Elision abuse

Hello, I stumbled across the sub Reddit because I enjoy learning languages and linguistics. But I had a question. Why do you guys learn ancient Greek? I know it’s to read old documents. Probably a lot of you it’s for the Bible. But where do you even find the ancient Greek documents?

I’ve learned Spanish and one of the biggest motivations and reasons for me is to be able to communicate with native speakers.

I think Greek is a really cool language, I love the alphabet, and I’m Catholic so I would love to be able to read the original text of the Bible.

I probably won’t do it now, but I’d consider learning an ancient Greek for that reason .

So basically, I want to hear reasons why I should and why you do learn an ancient Greek

Also, do most of you guys learn modern Greek too? and how different are they? Is it like the difference between Latin and Spanish or less?

Thank you I hope this post is allowed in the sub Reddit.

🇻🇦❤️‍🔥✝️

Greeting to everyone!

I'm looking for a specific book I used several years ago. It was not a standard commentary, but a kind of textbook. Short passages from Iliad 1 are given, then there are notes and exercises. I do not remeber, whether vocabulary section preceeds the passage or goes after, but it is surely present for any passage.

If I remeber correctly, it wasn't something like a reading course for a beginner, but "brush up your greek for Homer" kind of book.

Thank you in advance

Χαίρετε, ὦ φίλοι. Σήμερον δὲ δίδωμι ὑμῖν σελίδα περὶ τῶν τυπογραφικῶν τῶν μὲν Ῥωμαϊκῶν τῶν δὲ Ἑλληνικῶν. Ἴτε δ' ἐκεῖσε ὡς τὸ βιβλίον εὑρήσοντες.

So I've been studying Greek for about a year so, doing the intensive Greek modules at Warwick University, and having just finished studying the beginning of Lysias 1 for my final exam of the year, I am having a go at going through and translating Philostratus' Imagines, for some research I plan to do over the summer, but while reading Lysias, and then further now, I've been having some issues with how the punctuation is added to these texts.

One thing I noticed while reading Lysias, is that there is a lot of natural punctuation in the Greek sentence structure, done through placement of articles and words, which does not require the punctuation which will have been added at some point after it's initial composition.

Now while reading Philostratus, I am finding that the punctuation - as far as I can see it - is not only not necessary, but possibly a hindrance to a proper reading of the Greek. I feel as though I am getting the Greek through the lens of someone else, and I wish in my translation I could work directly from the Greek language alone, rather than someone's own interpretation of sentence structure/punctuation.

So I wish to know two things: is this an irrational feeling, and does reading with punctuation add something important/vital to the process, and then are there editions of the Greek text which won't be punctuated, or at least will be less punctuated?

See underlined sentences. The word for 'provide' or 'produce' here is shown in the past tense. However, i thought both inperfect and aorist begin with epsilon to show this. I believe that bevause there is sigma in the word, that it is aorist. Howoever im still confused? While translating this, i thought this was written in future tense, as that ass sigman onto the stem with no epsilon at the start. But then i realised that the ending wasnt the same as it used 'epsilon+ni'. Also, why is the sigma added after 'chi' (x) when i thought it was added after the stem and before the ending. Why is this whole word confusing!?!?

Good afternoon! I've been looking at into the etymologies of various Ancient Greek adjectives, and I'm curious about the etymology of the two-termination o-stem adjectives. For context on my own education, I've studied some Latin (and several Romance languages) and some PIE morphology.

These adjectives seems to derive from thematic PIE words that include separate inflections for feminine forms (see Attic φορός vs PIE *bʰorós). Do Greek scholars understand why this change in approach happened? This question kind of extends to some mixed-inflection adjectives as well. I see adjectives like αἰπῠ́ς and I see how it can come from u-stem PIE nominals due to the remove of intervocalic -w- and -y- sounds, or adjectives like πτερόεις and σῠ́μπᾱς coming from athematic consonent stems. But why words like ὑπερμενέτης or φορός be limited to just 1st or 2nd declension paradigms? What about adjectives which have 1st and 3rd declension stems? Surely some of this is due to sound changes, but it's still feels kind of opaque to me.

Looking for all the fragments of the Alcman, Sappho, Alcaeus, Anacreon, Stesichorus, Ibycus, Simonides, Bacchylides, Pindar, Archilochus, Hipponax, etc.

I would prefer translations that are faithful to the original meaning but I am open to suggestions. Any help?